Some of you are wondering why I haven't written about Covid-19 studies recently. Lamentably, the quality of such studies has not improved. It may have deteriorated even more. I wrestle with whether it's a waste of time to read them. The problems with many studies are apparent from the first page: how do they pass the peer review process?
This post concerns a half page of a recent jourmal publication called "Challenges in Estimating the Effectiveness of COVID-19 Vaccination Using Observational Data" (link). It's only half of one page because there are already enough problems with what I read that I don't see the point of continuing.
A friend sent me this paper because the authors share my concern about significant misrepresentation of vaccine effectiveness in observational studies of Covid-19 vaccines. (Here is a post about my paper published last month with two co-authors that highlighted three common biases that are not properly handled in studies.)
My comments are limited to the section with the header "Sequential Target Trial Emulation" on page 2 of the paper. In this section, the authors describe the first of two proposed analytical devices for dealing with biases in observational data.
For any observational study, there must be a well-defined starting and ending date of study enrollment. For each day in this enrollment window (and for each region), they pretend that a new target trial is being launched. This is how they put it:
on each day and in each region, eligible persons who have not yet been vaccinated are randomly assigned to receive immediate vaccination or to remain unvaccinated throughout follow-up and are then followed until COVID-19 diagnosis, death, or the end of the study period, whichever occurs first
They then suggest that each daily trial can be analyzed on its own, and then the results averaged to obtain an overall effectiveness. They claim this outcome is representative of the "intention to treat" effect in a hypothetical randomized clinical trial. That's a bold claim! (Not even Pfizer, Moderna, etc. claimed to have produced ITT vaccine efficacies even in their RCTs.)
I'm not making this up. They literally claimed that "The trial-specific estimates of the effect of vaccination from each sequential trial can then be combined to estimate an observational analogue of the intention-to-treat effect of assignment to the intervention."
***
Why am I shaking my head violently?
Their statement that people are "randomly assigned to receive immediate vaccination or to remain unvaccinated" is unserious.
We are talking about observational data - data analysts poking around in a database after the fact. It doesn't matter what analytical technique is used - it remains the case that the vaccinated people self-selected the treatment. They were not randomly assigned to receive immediate vaccination.
In fact, the authors contradicted themselves in the very next sentence when they explained (my bolding):
Each calendar day is considered as time zero for a new emulated trial, with persons who are determined to be eligible assigned to the vaccination group if they were vaccinated on that day or to the no-vaccination group if they were not vaccinated,
For the vaccinated, there is no "assignment", let alone random assignment. Whoever decided to get vaccinated lands passively in the treatment group for that day. Because the vaccinated are self-selected, the unvaccinated are self-selected as well. Whatever selection biases exist in the raw data persists in this ex-post experimental setup. This step absolutely does not support presumption of random treatment assignment.
If this procedure resulted in random treatment assignment, then the original dataset contains no biases, which annuls the central premise of the entire paper.
***
Of course, they aren't taking every unvaccinated person. So the data analyst actively selects who comprise the unvaccinated group. The authors give two mechanisms for selecting unvaccinated.
The first is random selection. I had to take a deep breath before reading on. I doubled back to see if I read this correctly. "One or more persons can be selected at random from all eligible persons who were unvaccinated on that day and in that region, with exclusion of unvaccinated persons selected for a comparison made on a previous day."
If they randomly selected unvaccinated, then the random sample of unvaccinated would have the same statistical composition as the population of unvaccinated. This ensures no correction for any kind of biases. And yet at the end of this process, they claim to have found the ITT effect as if a randomized clinical trial were run!
The second mechanism for selecting unvaccinated is by matching on key "characteristics that reflect Covid-19 risk". This method is definitely more acceptable as it at least attempts to make the two treatment groups more comparable.
In practice, the matching method faces several big challenges (many of which I have discussed before on this blog):
- the matchable population is a small proportion of the total population, e.g. most studies using matching heavily undersamples older people and oversamples younger people. The method is guaranteed to undersample demographic segments in which vaccination rate is high, and oversample demographic segments in which vaccination rate is low
- VE in the matched population may be different from VE in the general population. The estimated VE in the matched population is surely not the ITT for the entire population
- most important confounders are unmeasured (e.g. taking other mitigation measures, vaccine hesitancy, exposure to virus). Matching does not infer balance on non-matching variables, a key reason why ex-post matching on observational data cannot replace randomized treatment assignment
- most countries enforce highly targeted vaccination programs which generate irreducible biases, e.g. if older people are encouraged to get vaccinated first, and have done so in large numbers (say 80%), what's the chance that the 20% unvaccinated older people are comparable to the other 80% vaccinated older people?
***
There is another aspect of the observational studies that are buried away from the summary of the methodology. In the sentences cited above, they said that the study subjects were "followed until COVID-19 diagnosis, death, or the end of the study period, whichever occurs first." That surely cannot be true!
Another event that happens is vaccination. For people in the unvaccinated group, by definition, they have not been vaccinated up to the day of enrollment; however, many or most of them would get the vaccine during the follow-up period. How did the data analyst deal with this event? We are not given a hint in this methodology section.
Upon vaccination, clearly the follow-up period for the unvaccinated person must end. We simply don't know the counterfactual: what would have happened if the person did not get vaccinated? If we follow the time series of vaccine efficacy from day of vaccination forward, more and more people in the unvaccinated group are dropped from follow-up because they got themselves vaccinated. The people who stay in the unvaccinated group for a long time are the vaccine holdouts, who are clearly different from the general population, e.g. they are much less likely to take other precautions such as wearing masks, distancing, avoiding crowds, etc. How well does matching on demographics and basic health data control for these differences?
If those differences are not adequately accounted for, then the right side of the VE curve cannot be trusted.
***
Also, note that variability is artificially suppressed in this type of study. Anyone who got vaccinated during the study period appear once in the vaccinated group on the day of vaccination, but also may appear in the unvaccinated group on any day prior to vaccination. Unlike a typical RCT in which there are no overlaps in the group membership, in this type of observational studies, the majority of the people show up in both groups. So, if we subsequently run regression analysis comparing the two groups, adjusting for demographics and other factors, the variance between groups is markedly under-stated!
Recent Comments